assignment 3 question 3

assignment 3 question 3

by Laura Koth -
Number of replies: 5

I think I need some clarification about what it means to be a "case" but have 0 at risk alleles? the table specifies that this is 500.

I don't think I understand what we are being asked to do because of this X=0, 500 cases category, as this does not contribute to disease in terms of my understanding of dominant, recessive and co dominant inheritance.....

thank you

Laura

In reply to Laura Koth

Re: assignment 3 question 3

by John Witte -

In this question, when we state "Compute chi square tests for codominant, dominant and recessive modes of inheritance" what is really meant is "Compute chi square tests for codominant, dominant and recessive coding of genotypes". It's not that we know the particular mode of inheritance, but rather how we code the genotypes for analysis. For example, a dominant coding would collapse X=1 and X=2 together into a single exposure group and compare them to X=0.

In reply to John Witte

Re: assignment 3 question 3

by Laura Koth -

Can you or someone review slides 14-17 again?

your explanation to the above seems logical but when trying to relate it to the lecture material, I can't figure out how they compare. for example, is the C allele the risk allele in the slide material, and would it be equivalent to the X=1 or 2 alleles? So that the TT genotype is equivalent to the X=0 in question 3? So in your example of dominant above, you are adding X=1 and X=2 which is equivalent to adding CC and CT?


2 df Genotype                   Recessive (G)           Dominant (G)    


Genotype Case Control           Case Control            Case Control   


CC       A    D              CC A    D         CC or CT A+B  D+E      


CT       B    E        CT or TT B+C  E+F             TT C    F        


TT    C     F 


~chi_sq(2df)                   ~chi_sq(1df)           ~chi_sq(1df)     


In reply to John Witte

Re: assignment 3 question 3

by Laura Koth -

one last question. For co-dominant, according to the references I looked at, you need two different risk alleles. this question doesn't specify whether X=2 reflects two different alleles. It is clear as mud to me how to create a situation for co-dominance from the information given in the question. Would appreciate further discussion about this, or additional reference to read about the calculations presented in slides 14-17

thanks


In reply to Laura Koth

Re: assignment 3 question 3

by John Witte -

Co-dominant is the 2 df test used in slide 16. You compare the two genotypes (X=1, X=2) versus the null (X=0). Two different ORs are calculated.