I'm having trouble with 8.4c:
Let's suppose that this medication only works for true migraines and that everyone in the trial was sufficiently screened that all of them had true migraines. But out in the "real world" we are considering treating someone with headaches that we think might be migraines, but we are unsure. If we believe it is worth $500 to prevent one headache day, and if there were no other therapeutic options available, at what probability of migraine would the headache reduction benefit of fremanezumab justify the cost?
If your CBOP is $500 and you want to find the Ptt where the benefit justifies the cost, is it as simple as the BBOP would be $501 (If BBOP > CBOP, treat). So your Ptt is 500/501 = 0.99. That seems a bit high???
I think I'm way off base, any hints for this question?