I found very interesting that one of the reasons for not using a method of contraception was perceived low risk of pregnancy due to infrequent sex, post-partum infecundity or lactational infecundity. And that theoretically this low risk perception could make use of early medical abortion preferable over daily contraceptive use. I would be interested to know if this was found to be true in different contexts, especially on countries where abortion is illegal under all circumstances (compared to countries where it is legal).