So - in the table in question 11 about the CALFRAST test, the authors state that the NLR of the CALFRAST-strong test is 0.2, and the NLR of the CALFRAST fain is 0.0009.
There isn't a question about this in the final, but I spent FAR too much time thinking about this because this question was maddeningly confusing to me - they did these calculations incorrectly, right? Isn't the NLR 1-sens/spec. Did they mistakenly report the probability of disease in those with a negative test/the probability of no disease in those with a negative test?
What would that be called? Not the NLR, correct?
I know it's late but i'm going to be up most of the night working on this exam, so if anyone responds thanks!